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Viva Question and Answers in Antifungal and Antiviral Drugs

Here are 25 questions and answers each for antifungal and antiviral drugs:

Antifungal Drugs:

  1. Q: What is the mechanism of action of azole antifungals?
    • A: Azole antifungals inhibit the synthesis of ergosterol, a crucial component of fungal cell membranes, by blocking the enzyme lanosterol demethylase.
  2. Q: Name a commonly used topical antifungal for treating superficial fungal infections.
    • A: Clotrimazole
  3. Q: How does Amphotericin B work as an antifungal?
    • A: Amphotericin B binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, forming pores and causing leakage of cellular contents.
  4. Q: Which antifungal drug is often used for the treatment of serious systemic fungal infections but is associated with significant side effects?
    • A: Amphotericin B.
  5. Q: What is the role of echinocandins in antifungal therapy?
    • A: Echinocandins inhibit the synthesis of beta-glucans, an essential component of fungal cell walls.
  6. Q: Name an oral azole antifungal commonly used for the treatment of onychomycosis.
    • A: Terbinafine
  7. Q: Why is it important to monitor liver function in patients on long-term antifungal therapy?
    • A: Some antifungal drugs, especially azoles, can cause hepatotoxicity.
  8. Q: What is the primary indication for the use of nystatin?
    • A: Nystatin is used for the treatment of oral and mucocutaneous candidiasis.
  9. Q: Which antifungal drug is used in the treatment of Aspergillus infections and has good CNS penetration?
    • A:
  10. Q: What is the mechanism of action of griseofulvin?
    • A: Griseofulvin disrupts the mitotic spindle structure, inhibiting fungal cell division.
  11. Q: How do allylamines, such as terbinafine, work in antifungal therapy?
    • A: Allylamines inhibit the enzyme squalene epoxidase, disrupting fungal cell membrane synthesis.
  12. Q: Name an antifungal agent commonly used for the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis.
    • A:Fluconazole
  13. Q: Why is combination therapy sometimes used in the treatment of fungal infections?
    • A: To broaden the spectrum of activity and reduce the risk of resistance development.
  14. Q: What is the main advantage of topical antifungals in treating superficial fungal infections?
    • A: Limited systemic absorption, reducing the risk of systemic side effects.
  15. Q: Which antifungal class is known for its activity against dermatophytes?
    • A: Allylamines
  16. Q: What is the significance of the MIC (Minimum Inhibitory Concentration) in antifungal susceptibility testing?
    • A: It represents the lowest concentration of the drug that inhibits fungal growth.
  17. Q: How does flucytosine exert its antifungal activity?
    • A: Flucytosine is converted to 5-fluorouracil within the fungal cell, inhibiting DNA and RNA synthesis.
  18. Q: Which antifungal drug class is associated with the risk of QT interval prolongation?
  19. Q: Name a topical antifungal used for the treatment of tinea pedis (athlete’s foot).
    • A: Terbinafine cream.
  20. Q: In which patients is prophylactic antifungal therapy often considered?
    • A: Immunocompromised patients, such as those undergoing bone marrow transplantation.
  21. Q: Why is it important to monitor renal function in patients receiving amphotericin B?
    • A: Amphotericin B can cause nephrotoxicity.
  22. Q: What is the role of ketoconazole in the treatment of Cushing’s syndrome?
    • A: Ketoconazole can inhibit adrenal steroid synthesis and is used in the management of hypercortisolism.
  23. Q: How do azoles differ from polyenes in terms of their antifungal spectrum?
    • A: Azoles have a broader spectrum of activity, including both yeast and molds, while polyenes are more effective against molds.
  24. Q: Which antifungal drug is used as a prophylactic agent in patients with neutropenia?
    • A: Fluconazole
  25. Q: Name an antifungal agent that is administered intravenously and has good penetration into the central nervous system.

Antiviral Drugs:

  1. Q: What is the primary target of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) in antiretroviral therapy?
    • A: HIV reverse transcriptase enzyme.
  2. Q: How do protease inhibitors work in the treatment of HIV?
    • A: Protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV protease enzyme, preventing the maturation of viral particles.
  3. Q: Name a neuraminidase inhibitor used for the treatment of influenza.
    • A: Oseltamivir (Tamiflu).
  4. Q: Which antiviral drug is used for the treatment of herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections and varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infections?
    • A: Acyclovir
  5. Q: What is the mechanism of action of tenofovir in HIV treatment?
    • A: Tenofovir is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor that inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase.
  6. Q: How do non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) differ from NRTIs in their mechanism of action?
    • A: NNRTIs bind directly to the reverse transcriptase enzyme and inhibit its activity without requiring intracellular phosphorylation.
  7. Q: What is the role of integrase inhibitors in antiretroviral therapy?
    • A: Integrase inhibitors block the integration of viral DNA into the host cell genome.
  8. Q: Which antiviral drug is used for the treatment of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection and acts by inhibiting viral protease activity?
    • A: Sofosbuvir
  9. Q: What is the primary target of entry inhibitors in HIV therapy?
    • A: The entry inhibitors target the viral envelope glycoprotein gp41 or the cellular CCR5 receptor.
  10. Q: Name a common side effect associated with protease inhibitors.
    • A: Metabolic abnormalities such as hyperlipidemia and insulin resistance.
  11. Q: How does interferon work in the treatment of viral infections?
    • A: Interferon stimulates the immune system to inhibit viral replication and enhance antiviral defenses.
  12. Q: Which antiretroviral drug class is associated with the risk of lactic acidosis and mitochondrial toxicity?
    • A: Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs).
  13. Q: Why is combination therapy (HAART) crucial in the treatment of HIV?
    • A: It reduces the risk of drug resistance and enhances the effectiveness of treatment by targeting different stages of the viral life cycle.
  14. Q: Name a drug used for the pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) of HIV infection.
    • A: Truvada (combination of emtricitabine and tenofovir disoproxil fumarate).
  15. Q: How do neuraminidase inhibitors like oseltamivir work in the treatment of influenza?
    • A: Neuraminidase inhibitors prevent the release of newly formed influenza virus particles from infected cells.
  16. Q: What is the mechanism of action of ribavirin in the treatment of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection?
    • A: Ribavirin inhibits viral RNA synthesis.
  17. Q: Name an antiretroviral drug that acts as a fusion inhibitor in the treatment of HIV.
    • A:
  18. Q: How do entry inhibitors differ from fusion inhibitors in terms of their mechanism of action?
    • A: Entry inhibitors block the binding of the virus to cellular receptors, while fusion inhibitors prevent the fusion of the viral and cellular membranes.
  19. Q: What is the significance of genotypic resistance testing in the management of HIV infection?
    • A: Genotypic resistance testing helps identify mutations in the viral genome that confer resistance to specific antiretroviral drugs.
  20. Q: Name a drug used for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B infection.
    • A: Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate.
  21. Q: Which antiretroviral drug class is associated with central nervous system side effects, such as vivid dreams and insomnia?
    • A: Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs).
  22. Q: How does amantadine function as an antiviral agent?
    • A: Amantadine inhibits the replication of influenza A virus by interfering with the M2 ion channel.
  23. Q: Name a polymerase inhibitor used for the treatment of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection.
    • A: 
  24. Q: What is the role of CCR5 antagonists in the treatment of HIV?
    • A: CCR5 antagonists block the entry of HIV into cells by inhibiting the CCR5 co-receptor.
  25. Q: Why is monitoring viral load important in the management of HIV infection?
    • A: Viral load monitoring helps assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy and detect early signs of treatment failure.

Please note that these questions and answers provide a general overview, and specific details may vary based on the latest research and medical guidelines.

 

 

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